Objecting to the proposed change in the definition of 'Rape'

Via email from a reader:

Here is a way to send the FBI a letter through a feminist site. I wrote asking that the definition of rape not include when a woman is under the influence of drugs or alcohol. Here is my letter. I wrote both men. Feel free to use it (though it does have a couple grammatical errors) if you want others to also write in. Thanks.

"Dear Mr. Mueller,

I applaud your efforts to change the definition of rape. However, I find it appalling and degrading to women if you include that women under the influence of drugs or alcohol can not be responsible for giving consent. If a woman is empowered and independent enough to choose whether to have an abortion or not, then a woman can choose whether or not to have a couple of drinks with dinner and be responsible enough to subsequently consent to have sexual relations without it being a rape charge for her partner. By including this "under the influence" clause in the rape definition, you will also cause many innocent men to have their lives ruined by being branded a rapist. Do you want countless innocent men going to prison for decades because of this decision you have made? What if the woman had a couple of drinks before her partner arrives at her home? Is he supposed to issue a breathalyzer? What if she smoked some pot before he arrived? Is he supposed to have her take a blood test and wait for the results? This would cause hundreds if not thousands of men to be labeled rapists when they had no such intentions whatsoever. A woman can say no when offered a drink and choose not to drink if she knows there might be a chance of sexual relations forthcoming.

What if the woman is setting a man up just to get back at some perceived injustice? She can have sex with him and then take a few drinks and call in a rape charge after the fact. Is this definition of rape made to count true non-consensual rapes or made to trick men and count rapes that never were intented as such? Also, if both are under the influence, how does one know that the woman didn't initiate and take control and force sex without his consent? Would she be subject to rape charges as well? If a woman chooses to consume or partake of illicit drugs, should we then blame a man for his desire to be passionate? The woman can choose not to take illicit drugs. It is her choice and she knows the consequences beforehand. Are we then to also remove the responsibility of women who drink and then drive and kill somebody too? There is no difference here. In both instances it is a woman's choosing to take a drink or drugs knowing full well the possible consequences of her actions.

I hope you will answer to reason and common sense.

Thank you"