It's amazing to me that this guy can be prosecuted for a supposedly illegal act while the woman gets off scot-free, being that she requested the act in the first place. Seems to me that if what he did is illegal, she was at the very least, an accomplice. Furthermore, if she requested it, she is even more culpable since she planned the illegal act to begin with.
Furthermore, if she is not culpable because of her constitutional right to an abortion, I ask what is an abortion? Is what this guy did an abortion? If abortions are legal and he performed a legal act, how can he rightfully be prosecuted for murder? And if what he did is not an abortion, then it seems to me that her right to an abortion doesn't protect her in this situation.
Doesn't an abortion, by definition, involve a doctor? Does the law entitling her to an abortion allow her to kill her baby in any way she chooses or is she required to seek out a competent medical doctor? If she's not required to seek out a competent medical doctor, then why is this guy prosecuted? And if she is, then shouldn't she also be prosecuted!
Mind-boggling
Have you noticed lately that the government can twist just about any law to mean just about anything they want, to fit just about any situation? Was anyone here bothered when they heard that Russell Crowe was charged with "unlawful possession of a dangerous weapon" after he threw a telephone at a hotel worker? What does "unlawful possession" mean? What does "dangerous weapon" mean?
Dittohd
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