Women have the "right to sexuality"??

	posted by Matt on 10:34 AM May 12th, 2005
	Indiana Jones writes "Wow.... [In Italy] Men must pay damages to women if they don't offer them sex. Now, if its the other way around.....men forcing their wife into sex, he would lose everything in court."

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Hmm, interesting case... (Score:1) by mcc99 on 10:43 AM May 12th, 2005 EST (#1) I think the thing to do with this is "normalize" the situation. Reverse the sexes and also let's say that the woman could not have sex with her husband in addition to not reproduce (obviously). Would a court have found this way had the husband brought the case, and for the same reasons too? That's the question to ask. I think the answer is no.

Thong (Score:0) by Anonymous User on 02:09 PM May 12th, 2005 EST (#2) Thong, the fish is ready!

Re:Thong (Score:0) by Anonymous User on 02:40 PM May 12th, 2005 EST (#4) >"Thong, the fish is ready!" ...'the hell...?   Thundercloud.   "Hoka hey!"

TYPICAL DOUBLE STANDARDS... (Score:1) by jname967 on 02:17 PM May 12th, 2005 EST (#3) Another scenario in which the woman is empowered for doing this, but if it were reversed, the man would simply be labeled a jerk.

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