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A random sample of cases involving each major ethnic group should have been taken, and these cases should have been examined to see if there were any special circumstances that would have shifted the case to the woman's favor (abuse, infidelity, etc.) That way, you'd be able to prove one of two things:
1. Men of race X were more likely than men as a whole to commit marriage-destroying behaviors A, B, and C;
or
2. Men of all races sampled showed similar tendencies in that area, with the mean and variance measurements being almost identical between them.
The results will dictate whether (1) men of a certain race should recognize that their fellows are more likely to act in certain detrimental ways, and support each other and actively discourage such destructive behavior, or (2) there is no logical reason why one race should fare worse in the family court system (i.e. the loss of the average divorce case was not self-inflicted).
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